Some references to the differences in Basque language to that spoken elsewhere in Spain may indicate a potentially interesting set of issues(see: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Basque_language). It is assumed by linguists that variations in language can be linked to issues of migration of social groups and that trends in the form of language will be linked in a systematic manner to a defined space according to the population within that space and their heritage, which is interlinked to other populations from linked geographical areas, that language is spatially influenced if not defined.
There are deemed to be such strong trends in language use geographically, that it is possible to infer population movement according to the variation in language use and conversely, it is possible to identify what is termed a ‘language isolate’ may exist.(see: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Language_isolate). The general term of ‘migration’ may be of interest in this case, there is an assumption that there is free movement of people across Europe, and for this to have taken place for some significant time – if any beginning point could be meaningfully established.
What does the term ‘language isolate’ actually mask other forms of social activity – perhaps as there are the groups who have an almost Russian language in the north of Spain because they were uprooted and sold to the Spanish business elite in a white-on-white slave trade. We as a nation tend not to have a great awareness of slavery outside of that which took place involving the indigenous African population. There may have been a great many ‘migrations’ which were not carried out through personal choice and perhaps there are equally as strong divisions in the white population as there are between some black white groups. Perhaps there could be other explanations of why Basque culture is different to that elsewhere in Northern Spain as well but this may provide a point of reference.
To an extent it could be argued that there may have been the birth of the slave industry as a result of stability of sea travel which led to a different form of slavery to that which was employed when road travel was the main form of slave trading. Perhaps there were a number of synonymous incidents of slave uprisings which led to the decline of interest in white-white slave trading and the spin doctors of the 15th century managed to convince us that we were all being well managed.
This may seem a little ironic bearing in mind Bernie Grant’s comment to Tony Blair regarding his mothers maiden name – Blair. Were Mr Blair’s forefathers the owners of Mr Grant’s? The contemporary master of spin may have had a long family history of being involved in spin related activities. This may still need to be challenged. I personally feel there is some significant bias in the methods used by the media in highlighting the nature of the problems of slavery – there were injustices connected to it but there should always be a responsible comparison made to the living conditions of the time for the white British population to indicate exactly how poor living conditions were for all at the time. Also, a great many forms of slavery may be overlooked to a point where they may as well be written out of history. Descendants of Indian slaves reside in Fiji and were deported from Uganda in the 1970's – yet the main image of slave in contemporary society is black, of African origin.
The coverage of the Beckford family, a south-west family of slave traders, in the relatively recent documentaries on the BBC may also reflect a bias. There were actions sanctioned by the British government when most of the white population were not treated much better than slaves themselves which involved the initiation of the international slave trade. While I may fear great many of the people who run Britain today, who largely control the media, are descendents of slave-master families who shape our history and want to spread the guilt of their forefathers families across the whole nation themselves rather than organisations still in existence take responsibility for what took place. Lloyds Insurance (Lloyds of London), Lloyds TSB and Barclays have all strong enough links to establishing themselves through slavery to be more directly held responsible for any reparation if this does get strong public backing.
Perhaps the concept of nation was developed to legitimate slave trading to a rather ill-equipped population who would not have the education to challenge this type of notion. Have we all been misled regarding ‘nationalism’ being the most important part of our identities, as British subjects, when this could be more readily be linked to masking foreign policy malpractice? Nationalism in this sense makes us relatively easy to govern rather than aware. If this is the case perhaps we should be engaged in a process of developing a post-colonial national identity based upon racial, cultural and social harmonies linked to British heritage, rather than cultural pride in our history per se. If it was a means of controlling the British population and making an unmanageable situation manageable, this should be acknowledged.
I assume that there are a number of reasons why reparation movements don’t get off the ground in the UK and one of these may be diverse – if any do I hope they are balanced and minimise negative impacts. In answer to the question posed I guess I would gravitate towards the opinion that there is little chance of insight from etymology because it is shaped by a strongly manipulated version of social history which will continue to affect us.
